This post is based upon my reading of section 2.3 of Chapter 2 of Thurston’s Three Dimensional Geometry and Topology. In particular, we will be looking at the analogue to the unit sphere (in Euclidean space \vb{E}^n) in Lorentzian space \vb{E}^{n, 1}.

The Lorentzian space \vb{E}^{n, 1} is \mathbb{R}^{n+1} endowed with metric \eta = - dx_0^2 + dx_1^2 + ... + dx_n^2. This metric is associated with the quadratic form: Q^{-}(x) = -x_0^2 + x_1^2 + ... + x_n^2.

The x_0 direction represents time and the subspace spanned by \{ x_1, ..., x_n \} represents space (when n=3, this gives us the model for special relativity).

A vector x is space-like if Q^{-}(x) is positive, time-like if Q^{-}(x) is negative, and light-like if it is zero. The length of a vector is given by \sqrt{Q^{-}(x)} (analogous to the Euclidean case). Hence, time-like vectors have imaginary length.

In this post, we will study the sphere of radius I about the origin in \vb{E}^{n,1}, i.e. the set of ‘unit length’ time-like vectors. This set is (let’s call it \vb{H}) in fact, a hyperboloid. In \mathbb{R}^{2,1}, it looks like:

Claim: the restriction of the metric \vb{H} gives us a positive definite Riemannian metric.

Approach 1: we compute the metric on this surface.

Key: to make computations more simple, notice that \vb{H} can be seen as the graph of a function over the x_0 = 0 hyperplane.

Define \Psi: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \vb{H} \subset \mathbb{R}^{n+1} given by

\Psi(y_0, ..., y_n) = (x_0, x_1, ..., x_n) with

x_0 = \sqrt{1+||y||^2}

and x_k = y_k for any k \geq 1.

This gives us one component of the hyperboloid \vb{H}. We can similarly derive the metric on the other component, and show that it will be the same.

Notice that \Psi^{-1} on this component of \vb{H} gives us a chart.

I will attach a screenshot of my computations below (I am too lazy to Latex everything out):

Screenshot

This is the metric matrix with respect to the basis dy_1, ..., dy_n. To show that this matrix is indeed positive definite, it suffices to compute its eigenvalues.

It is not difficult to spot the eigenvectors.

Given a point (y_1, ..., y_n) \in \mathbb{R}^n, notice that:

g(y) = y \cdot \frac{1}{1 + ||y||^2}

and for any w \perp y, g(w) = w.

Approach 2: Thurston said in his book that the reason we have a positive definite Riemannian metric on \vb{H} is because the tangent vector to \vb{H} has real length. Is this sufficient? I am still very new to the notion of putting metrics on sub manifolds. He was saying the restriction of \eta to \vb{H}. Is there a difference between the restriction of a metric in the ambient space to a manifold and the induced metric?

Interesting: A subset of \mathbb{RP}^n on \vb{H}

On the sphere, we can construct \mathbb{RP}^n by identifying antipodal points. Again, we can get a subset of \mathbb{RP}^n by identifying antipodal points of \vb{H}. But since \vb{H} consists of 2 disjoint components, this subset can be simply described by one component. Thurston called this the hyperboloid model of hyperbolic space.

We can also describe the same subset by mapping \vb{H} onto the unit disk by the lines (t, x_1 t, ..., x_n t) passing through the origin. Please see the following excellent figure that Thurston had put in his book:

This gives us the Klein model of hyperbolic space.

Thinking about: the metric on the Klein disk is not the induced metric, but the push-forward of the hyperboloid’s metric by central projection. (As you can probably tell, I have now become quite confused with the various ways which we can define new metrics…, still in the process of figuring everything out.)

Orthogonal Complement: this is analogous to the Euclidean space. Given a non-zero vector x, its orthogonal complement x^{\perp} is n-dimensional.

Claim: for any point x \in \vb{H}, T_x \vb{H} = \{ y \in \vb{E}^{n, 1}: y \perp x \}.

Proof (I have again attached a screenshot of my work because I am feeling exceedingly lazy):

Isometries of \vb H

Analogous to the Euclidean space where the isometries of the sphere are exactly the orthogonal transformations of the Euclidean space, in the Lorentzian space, the isometries of \vb{H} are exactly the orthogonal transformations of the Lorentzian space. The orthogonal transformations are the linear transformations of \mathbb{R}^{n+1} preserving the quadratic form Q^{-}(x) = -x_0^2 + x_1^2 + ... + x_n^2.

Since \vb{H} is the zero-set of Q^{-}, any non-trivial orthogonal transformation of \vb{E}^{n, 1}, O(n, 1) induces a non-trivial isometry on H. So it now remains to show all isometries of \vb{H} are indeed elements of O(n, 1). It suffices to show that O(n, 1) acts transitively and isotropically on H. Recall: a group acts isotropically on \vb{H} if at any point p \in H and any isometry, B, in the tangent space T_p \vb{H}, there exists a group element A \in O(n, 1) fixing p such that dA|_p coincides with B.

Currently thinking about: how do these 2 statements imply that O(n, 1) is the group of isometries for H?

Transitivity

Key: use reflection across the orthogonal complement of v := p - q.

Notice that g(p-q, p-q) = g(p, p) + g(p, -q) + g(-q, p) + g(-q, -q) = -2(1 + g(p, q)) is non-zero for p \neq q (where g is the Lorentzian inner product).

Hence, we can define the Lorentzian reflection across v:

R_v(x) = x - 2\frac{g(x, v)}{g(v, v)}v

When x \in v^{\perp}, R_v(x) = x.

R_v(p) = p - 2 \frac{g(p, p-q)}{g(p-q, p-q)}(p-q)

= p - 2\frac{-1 - g(p, q)}{-2(1 + g(p, q)}v

= p - v

= q

Similarly, we can show that R_v(q) = p.

It is not difficult to check that R_v is an element of O(n, 1).

Isotropicity

From part a), it suffices to consider p = (1, 0, ..., 0).

From the previous exercise, T_p \vb{H} = p^{\perp} (this is the n-dimensional space-like subspace of E^{n, 1}). The Lorentzian metric when restricted to this subspace is positive definite. Thus, we can find an orthonormal basis in p^{\perp} such that we have the usual Euclidean space of dimension n. Let B be an isometry of this tangent space; then B is a Euclidean isometry and it fixes the origin. We can show that B is an orthogonal transformation on \mathbb{R}^n, i.e. B^{T}B = I.

We now extend B to a linear map A on \mathbb{R}^{n+1}.

Let A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0_{1 \times n} \\ 0_{n \times 1} & B \end{bmatrix}.

It is easy to see that A(p) = p and

A^{T} \eta A = \begin{\bmatrix} 1 & 0_{1 \times n} \\ 0_{n \times 1} & B^{T} \end{bmatrix} \begin{\bmatrix} -1 & 0_{1 \times n} \\ 0_{n \times 1} & I_n \end{\bmatrix} \begin{\bmatrix} 1 & 0_{1 \times n} \\ 0_{n \times 1} & B \end{bmatrix}

= \begin{\bmatrix} -1 & 0_{1 \times n} \\ 0_{n \times 1} & I_n \end{\bmatrix}

Thus A \in O(n, 1).

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