The first part of the post is based upon my reading of Arnold’s ODE, the section: Differential Equations on Manifolds; the second part of the post is based upon my reading of Wald’s General Relativity / concepts from class. The motive of this post is to write out my own understanding of these concepts and to reconcile the different definitions that the 2 books give (I believe Arnold approaches it from a more geometric perspective whereas Wald approaches it from a more abstract point of view).

Part 1: Arnold’s ODE

Tangent Space

Let M be a smooth manifold.

Definition of a tangent vector to M at point p: it is an equivalence class of curves passing through p. We say that two curves are equivalence if their images on any chart are equivalent in \mathbb{R}^n (easy to see that this is indeed an equivalence relation).

Recall: the equivalence relation in \mathbb{R}^n is given by: \gamma_1(t) \tilde \gamma_2(t) if the distance between these two curves is o(|t|) as t \rightarrow 0 (if we write down a local coordinate, then this equivalence class becomes a vector).

Note: the equivalence relation on M is independent of charts because the transition maps are diffeomorphisms.

Tangent Bundle

We consider TM = \cup_{p \in M} T_{p}M the union of the tangent spaces at each point of M.

TM has a natural smooth manifold structure.

It makes sense for the dimension of TM to be 2n. A point in TM = ‘point of attachment on M’ + ‘direction vector of the tangent space of M at that point’. i.e. to determined a point, we need to know which tangent space it belongs to (the p in T_p M) – determined by n values since M is dimension n – and then the vector in that tangent space – determined by another n values since T_p M is dimension n.

Figure taken from Arnold’s ODE, last chapter.

We construct a chart on TM from an existing chart on M.

Let (W, \phi) be a chart on M and (x_1, ..., x_n) be the corresponding local coordinates given on U = \phi(W) \subset \mathbb{R}^n. We map each T_p M to the corresponding tangent space of \mathbb{R}^n at \phi(p) by the inverse of the map \psi : T := \{ \text{equivalence class of curves emanating from} \phi(p) \text{at the instant} t_0 \} \rightarrow \phi(T) (this map, as mentioned above, is well-defined and bijective and invariant under the changing of charts).

Note: using \psi^{-1} we can also define a local coordinate on each T_p M given a local coordinate on T_{\phi(p)} \mathbb{R}^n. Let (\xi_1, ..., \xi_n) is the local coordinate on T_{\phi(p)} \mathbb{R}^n. Suppose \gamma_i : I \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n satisfies \frac{d \gamma_i}{dt}|_{t_0} = \xi_i. Then, \frac{d \phi^{-1}(\gamma_i)}{dt}|_{t_0} gives us the corresponding coordinate on T_p M.

Let TW = TM|_{p \in W}, and \sigma = (\phi, \psi^{-1}). Then (TW, \sigma), where \sigma : TW \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{2n}, \sigma(\textbf{v}) = (x_1, ..., x_n, \xi_1, ..., \xi_n) is a chart on TM. We can apply this construction, extending each (W_i, \phi_i) on M to obtain an atlas for TM.

Consistency of charts:

Suppose (\tilde{TW}, \tilde{\sigma}) is another chart of M. By construction, \tilde{\sigma} = (\tilde{phi}, \tilde{\psi}^{-1}) where \tilde{\phi} is a chart from the atlas of M and \tilde{\psi} is the corresponding map from T_{\phi(p)}(\mathbb{R}^n) to T_p M. By assumption \tilde{\phi} \circ \phi^{-1} is smooth and invertible (this is just a transition map of M).

What about \tilde{psi}^{-1} \psi?

Let (x_1, ..., x_n) and (y_1, ..., y_n) be the two local coordinates on \phi(W \cap \tilde{W}) and \tilde{\phi}(W \cap \tilde{W}), respectively. And:

y_i = \tilde{\phi} \circ \phi^{-1}_{i}(x_1, ..., x_n).

Let (\xi_1, ..., \xi_n) and (\eta_1, ..., \eta_n) be the two local coordinates on T_\phi(p) (\mathbb{R}^n) for some p \in W \cap \tilde{W} corresponding to \psi^{-1} and \tilde{\psi}^{-1}, respectively. Since these two coordinates arise from the \phi, \tilde{\phi} maps, rewriting the above in coordinates, we have:

\eta_i = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{\partial \tilde{\phi} \circ \phi^{-1}_{i}}{x_k} \xi_k

these are smooth functions of the \xi_k‘s.

Definition: the manifold TM is the tangent bundle of M.

We have 2 natural mappings between M and TM:

  1. i: M \rightarrow TM given by mapping each point p \in M to the zero vector of T_p M.
  2. p: TM \rightarrow M given by the projecting mapping which takes each T_p M and maps it to p.
Figure taken from Arnold’s ODE, last chapter.

Definitions:

  • Fibers: pre-images of points under the projection mapping p. Example: T_p M is a fiber of the bundle TM.
  • M is the base of TM.

Part 2

Tangent Space

In Wald’s General Relativity, he defines the tangent vector X_p of a smooth manifold at point p to be:

a linear map X_p : C^{\infty}(M) \rightarrow \mathbb{R} satisfying the Leibniz rule, i.e. for any f, g \in C^{\infty}(M), X_p(f \cdot g) = X_p(f) \cdot g(p) + f(p) \cdot X_p(g).

So how do we reconcile this definition with the one given by Arnold? How do we see the ‘vector’ hidden behind this definition?

Key: X_p is the map that arises when we differentiate a smooth function along the tangent vector, say v = (X_1, ..., X_n). Suppose (x_1, ..., x_n) to be the local coordinates at p on M. Then, X_p = \sum_{k=1}^n X_k \frac{\partial}{\partial x_k}.

The equivalency of these two definitions come from the following bijective map:

(X_1, ..., X_n) \rightarrow X_1 \frac{\partial}{\partial x_1} + ... + X_n \frac{\partial}{\partial x_n}.

Recall: this is essentially the one-to-one correspondence between a vector field, v, and its first-order homogeneous linear differential operator, L_v, that Arnold discussed in chapter 1 of his PDE book (and also in chapter 2 of his ODE book).

We are really seeing the tangent space as the space of first-order homogeneous linear differential operators!

In this case, the coordinate tangent vectors corresponding to (x_1, ..., x_n) of the local coordinates on M are: (\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1}|_p, ..., \frac{\partial}{\partial x_n}|_p) and they span the tangent space T_p M.

Cotangent Space

Definition: {T_p}^{*} M is the space of linear functionals \omega : T_p M \rightarrow \mathbb{R}.

This is the dual space of T_p M. It is the space of differential 1-forms.

But how do we see the duality?

Let df_p \in {T_p}^{*} M, we want df_p(X_p) = X_p(f) for any X_p = (X_1, ..., X_n) \in T_p M (or X_p = \sum_{k=1}^n X_k \frac{\partial}{\partial X_k}).

Know: X_p(f) = X_1 \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1} + ... + X_n \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_n}.

Hence, df_p: (X_1, ..., X_n) \rightarrow X_1 \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1} + ... + X_n \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_n} is the map.

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