Claim: Given a_1, a_2, a_3 \in \mathbb{C}, these 3 values lie on the vertices of an equilateral triangle \Leftrightarrow a_1^2 + a_2^2 + a_3^2 = a_1a_2 + a_2a_3 + a_1a_3.

Proof:

Key: a_1^2 + a_2^2 + a_3^2 = a_1a_2 + a_2a_3 + a_1a_3 is invariant under scaling, rotation, and translation. Both scaling and rotation are represented by multiplication of a complex number. Since the equation is homogeneous of degree 2, it follows that it is invariant under multiplication by a constant. Translation is the addition of a complex number. If (\tilde{a_1}, \tilde{a_2}, \tilde{a_3}) is a solution to the above, then it follows that for any \alpha \in \mathbb{C}, we have:

(\tilde{a_1}+ \alpha)^2 + (\tilde{a_2} + \alpha)^2 + (\tilde{a_3} + \alpha)^2 - ((\tilde{a_1} + \alpha)(\tilde{a_2} + \alpha) + (\tilde{a_2} + \alpha)(\tilde{a_3} + \alpha) + (\tilde{a_1} + \alpha)(\tilde{a_3}+ \alpha)

= (\tilde{a_1}^2 + 2\tilde{a_1}\alpha + \alpha^2) + (\tilde{a_2}^2 + 2\tilde{a_2}\alpha + \alpha^2) + (\tilde{a_3}^2 + 2a_3\alpha + \alpha^2) - (\tilde{a_1}\tilde{a_2} + \tilde{a_1}\alpha + a_2\alpha + \alpha^2) - (\tilde{a_2}a_3 + \tilde{a_2}\alpha + \tilde{a_3}\alpha + \alpha^2) - (\tilde{a_3}\tilde{a_1} + \tilde{a_3}\alpha + \tilde{a_1}\alpha + \alpha^2)

= \tilde{a_1}^2 + \tilde{a_2}^2 + a_3^2 - \tilde{a_1}\tilde{a_2} - \tilde{a_2}\tilde{a_3} - \tilde{a_3}\tilde{a_1}

= 0.

Hence, (\tilde{a_1}+\alpha, \tilde{a_2}+\alpha + \tilde{a_3}+\alpha) is also a solution.

What does this mean? Given (a_1, a_2, a_3) to be the 3 vertices of an equilateral triangle, we can then apply a sequence of rotation, scaling, and translation to transform it to the equilateral triangle with vertices (0, 1, \frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2}). It suffices to show (0, 1, \frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2}) satisfies the above equation.

1 + 0 + (\frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2})^2 - 1\cdot0 - 0\cdot(\frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2}) - 1\cdot(\frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2})

= 1 + (\frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2})^2 - (\frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2})

= 0, which is what we want.

Now, suppose (\tilde{a_1}, \tilde{a_2}, \tilde{a_3}) satisfies the equation. We can apply a sequence of rotation, scaling, and translation to transform (\tilde{a_1}, \tilde{a_2}) to (0, 1). It now suffices to show that \tilde{a_3} must be mapped to \frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2} or \frac{1}{2}-i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2}; this would mean the original triangle, which is similar to its image, must also be an equilateral triangle. Showing \tilde{a_3} being mapped to \frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2} or \frac{1}{2}-i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2} is equivalent to showing that \frac{1}{2}+i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2} or \frac{1}{2}-i\frac{sqrt{3}}{2} are the only solutions to:

1 + 0^2 + z^2 = 1\cdot0 + 0\cdot z + 1\cdot z (1).

Simplifying (1) gives:

z^2 -z +1 = 0.

$latex \Leftrightarrow

x^2 – y^2 + x + 1 = 0$ and

2xy - y = 0 (given z = x + iy).

$latex \Leftrightarrow

y = 0, x = \frac{-1 +/- \sqrt{-3}}{2} (not valid since x \in \mathbb{R})

or

y = +/- \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}, x = \frac{1}{2}, which is what we want.

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